colbygreen2807 colbygreen2807
  • 21-10-2021
  • History
contestada

Why does if man destroys the eye of a man's slave or beaks a bone of a man's slave, he shall pay one-half his price.

Respuesta :

lakenomnom
lakenomnom lakenomnom
  • 21-10-2021

Slaves were not treated as equals, slaves are already beaten, a man will only pay half the price because the slave isn’t that important, but is still important a bit for the other person to pay half the price, because the slave works and works day and night for their master.that’s all they were considered useful for.

Answer Link

Otras preguntas

In Romeo and Juliet, if Romeo were Paris and not a Montague, would Juliet still love him? Why or why not? How big a part does "forbidden love" play in their att
In the figure below, Ken's company has placed sprinkler heads at the center of the two small semicircles. The radius Of the sprinklers is 5ft If the area in the
1. 1 yard = ____ feet 2.1 foot = ____ inches 3.1 mile = ____ feet
Help me pleaseeeeeeeeeeee
Task: Physical and Chemical Properties of Ocean Water Instructions Use the information and image to answer Activity 1 and Activity 2. A scientist is exploring a
Why does evolution only occur in populations and not to individuals?
Which is true of commercial producers in developed countries? They suffer from greatly decreased yields. They must plant fallow crops per government regulations
last free pt finish the lyrics body been a sight for sore eyes
Can American citizens have rights without responsibilities ? why or why not?
Where do employers send the amount withheld from payroll taxes?